I have a bunch of related datasets. The pearson correlations between pairs of them are typically definitely larger than the spearman correlations. That suggests any correlation is linear, but one might expect that even if the pearson and spearman were the same. What does it mean when there is a definite gap between the pearson and the spearman correlation and the pearson is larger?

This seems to be a consistent feature across my datasets.

**Answer**

The Spearman correlation is just the Pearson correlation using the ranks (order statistics) instead of the actual numeric values. The answer to your question is that they’re not measuring the same thing. Pearson: linear trend, Spearman: monotonic trend. That the Pearson correlation is higher just means the linear correlation is larger than the rank correlation. This is probably due to influential observations in the tails of the distribution that have large influence relative to their ranked values. Tests of association using the Pearson correlation are of higher power when the linearity holds in the data.

**Attribution***Source : Link , Question Author : John Robertson , Answer Author : AdamO*